Percentages are based on the 63.1% of homicides from 1980 through 2008 for which the
victim/offender relationships were known.
Homicide offenders and victims, by sex, 1980–2008
Victim/offender relationshipMale offender/male victim 67.8%
Male offender/female victim 21.0
Female offender/male victim 9.0
Female offender/female victim 2.2
Note: they don't say how many of the victims are in lesbian relationships. I think this is where Feminists are getting the 1 in 5 figure from. (Feminists never seem to mention that men are the victims of women)
The trouble is, this is over ALL relationships.
I'm staring at this data and thinking "I have no idea how many of these are same sex relationships"
So let's assume everyone was straight for a moment. Let's assume the known ratio of victim/offender relationships can be extrapolated.
Does that mean the percentage of women killed by male partners is 63.7% * 21%? ie 8.5%? Or that we just don't have enough information to even guess?
By 2008, the rates for both groups had fallen, reaching 8.5 homicides per 100,000 for
males and 2.3 homicides per 100,000 for females
|Homicide type, by sex, 1980–2008|
|Types of homicide||Male||Female||Male||Female|