Sunday, 26 April 2015

Feminist decide that censorship, by definition, is something they can’t do, so it totally doesn’t count when they do it.


http://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2015/apr/23/women-are-silenced-online-just-as-in-real-life-it-will-take-more-than-twitter-to-change-that
“In the US, censorship is defined as action to prevent or block speech by the government. Those last three words are very important, so I put them in bold.”


This is very interesting; The Guardian seems to have blocked me so i can’t reply directly, but is that a common belief over there?

https://www.google.com.au/search?q=censorship+definition&ie=utf-8&oe=utf-8&gws_rd=cr&ei=igc8VZe4DJK78gWi74GoDg

I don’t see anything that says it has to be from the government to count. That doesn’t make any sense. In an anarchy, for example, you can still have censorship when a group of thugs walk over and burn your books because they say things they don’t like.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nazi_book_burnings

"On 10 May 1933, in an act of ominous significance, the students burned upwards of 25,000 volumes of "un-German" books, thereby presaging an era of uncompromising state censorship."

If censorship was, by definition, by the State, then "state censorship" would be redundant.

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Please try to avoid logical fallacies!